Aaaah, fandom...
Sometimes fandom throws out the wonderfullest lines. Such as this question:
You have experience decapitating with a xacto knife? ;-)
It being the latest in a growing discussion of AOQ's review of FFL.
There's also a guy (3D master) who's so anti-Spike that he's made himself a whole new theory about him, that fits with pretty much nothing of canon. *shakes head in amusement*
Also I just realised that I've yet to show off my new icon!
st_salieri found it hidden on her laptop. Isn't it brilliant? Salieri is very clever! :)
You have experience decapitating with a xacto knife? ;-)
It being the latest in a growing discussion of AOQ's review of FFL.
There's also a guy (3D master) who's so anti-Spike that he's made himself a whole new theory about him, that fits with pretty much nothing of canon. *shakes head in amusement*
Also I just realised that I've yet to show off my new icon!
![[livejournal.com profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/external/lj-userinfo.gif)
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I just read the review, not the comments so tell em...Did anyone coment on:
They're not like you and I," comes from William.
(Poets don't bother with proper grammar.)
Because 3 years ago I started a whole grammar war on the Internet about that "like you and I"! The funny thing was that it wasn't a war between Americans and Brits since the war divided North America as well as British Isles!
Nobody agreed on that at the time. I even asked my colleagues who taught English and started a new kerfuffle between them at school with it!
I have been told by an English friend that the use of "me" was actually not proper grammar for a long time until recently. A scottish colleague who taught English seconded that, but another teacher said that the use of I was a mistake.
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Of course, I could be wrong...
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That's exactly what my English friend told me. Being French I only instinctively knew that William didn't make a grammar mistake (I thought that the verb was implied and also I must have read "you and I" in English plays I guess when I was a student in my 20's)but some English people told me I was wrong and he should have said "you and me" and I had a Canadian friend (from Vancouver) who was horrified by William's faux-pas.
Fun with grammar
But there's an easy way to determine the correct case for compound subjects and compound objects: break "They're not like you and I," up into "They're not like you," and "They're not like I." The latter is clearly wrong; it should be "They're not like me." On the other hand, if the sentence were "You and __ should go to the park," then "I" would be correct, because "You and I" is the subject of the sentence.
(For further headaches, note that I'm using the correct but almost-completely-abandoned past subjunctive mood of "to be" in the sentence above--nine out of ten speakers of American English will probably tell you that it should be "if the sentence was 'You and I.'")
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An American friend who studied grammar in college backed it! Too bad I didn't save the numerous emails that were exchanged then.
But others thought that it should have been "like you and me" because it was an objective case (and also because of the use of "like" instead of "as").
And there I was, I who isn't an English speaker! *g*
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English is a haaaard language sometimes!
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Sorry, I didnt' mean to start that thing again on your LJ and spread the grammar war in your family!
I bet that my friend would have told him that "They are beneath I" might actually be oldfashioned and affected, but actually correct!
Somehow I liked her side because being affected and using such a language fit a poet who wrote a word like "effulgent"!
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'You and I' does sound affected, so maybe that's the explanation...
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Is the sentence really: "They are not like you and I are" / "They are not like you are and I am"?
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"When a personal pronoun is used in a comparison to represent the second thing being compared, the subjective case of the pronoun should be used. The reason for this is that the pronoun is the subject of a verb, even when the verb is omitted by means of ellipsis."
So William is right after all. *g*
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Clear as mud?
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Or maybe Ansell of thinking of structures like "People like you and I hate that sort of thing" where "you and I" is indeed functioning as the subject of the sentence? Whereas in William's example "They" is the subject.
Also (and this is my clinching argument :-)) you get exactly the same kind of hypercorrection in contexts where it's clearly grammatically incorrect, such as "He gave it to you and I". The second pronoun confuses the hell out of people and they put it in the nominative because they think that's correct (who knows, maybe this is also an example of English giving up its last vestiges of case altogether).
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Informal, common usage is "I'm not like him," but put that implicit verb back in there--"I'm not like him is"--and suddenly you can see how it sounds weird. It really does expand into two independent clauses, "I am" and "He is."
Your final example is indeed incorrect, but that's because in that sentence "he and I" is the indirect object of "to give."
I'm going to go look this up in some offline sources this weekend to see if the confirm it, though.
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I think I'm going to give up now. Look! Cows!
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